As we know from the New Testament, this chapter is about Jesus, his life and his death. There are quite specific things that were fulfilled that only could be true if this was a prophecy of God. Things like he would be accused of being a criminal even though they could find no crime, and he would be buried in a rich man’s tomb (v. 9).

The chapter starts out with something that gave me pause:

”Who has believed what we have heard? And who has the arm of the LORD been revealed to?” (v. 1).

From the beginning we see a foreshadowing of those who would no believe. This is always tough, but there are some who won’t believe no matter what you put in front of them.

“He didn’t have any impressive form or majesty that we should look at Him, no appearance that we should desire Him.” (v. 2).

He looked as normal as normal could be. There was nothing that would cause us to look at him different than any other person. He didn’t wear a white robe or have something special that marked him. He was…normal.

“He was despised and rejected by men, a man of suffering who knew what sickness was” (v. 3).

Ok…this gave me pause. I compared it in a few translations and other translations say he knew pain. But it made me think, he knew sickness? Not that I have any qualms with that. I just have a lot of friends who have a lot of theology on sickness/health. But whether he was sick or just in pain, he knew whaat that was like.

“we are healed by his wounds” (v. 5).

My charismatic friends state that this is the basis on which people receive healing today. And that God wants to heal all as sickness is not of God. And that faith just needs to rise up for healing.

I am torn on this theology. I have seen God heal. I have friends who pray and often see healing. But I also know that we live in a fallen world and people are sick, people of faith.

I’m told then that everyone Jesus prayed for was healed, and that it is the faith of the person praying and not the recipient. Could be.

And that this Scripture is the proof that we are healed physically through the wounds “stripes” of Jesus which was the flogging. Although Jesus prayed and people were healed before he was crucified.

Honestly I just don’t know. I come from a very conservative background where church bulletins were filled with requests to pray for sick people. But at the same time if anyone reported a supernatural like healing such healing was suspect.

Then having many charismatic friends I saw people pray and see healings in a very unfluffy way. No drama. Just pray, see healing, and fine. And then when I received a miraculous healing in an instant it REALLY changed my theology. Because I couldn’t deny things so easily anymore.

So I don’t know. I do believe God heals. I’m not sure this is the best Scripture for this. I’m more inclined to lean into the life of Jesus on issues of healing. But I do know I’m a work in progress on this issue.

Ok. Back to the text because then it gets hard.

“Yet the LORD was pleased to crush Him severely” (v. 10).

Whoa. That’s a lot to take in. I’m surprised that more atheists don’t arm themselves up with that but many are soundly stuck on Numbers 31.

So what does this mean? The commentaries state that it isn’t that God was pleased to cause the suffering of His son, but rather that his son’s suffering meant reconciliation would be available to God and man. I do see this as true as it fits the context of the following lines. Similar to the “pleasing sacrifices” of the temple.

A cursory look at the Hebrew shows that the word is used for someone “desiring” something. It’s also used as delighting in something.

Whew though. It just sounds so harsh. But if we look in context of a pleasing offering of restoration, it is a little more palatable.